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NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization?
- A. Signal blocking
- B. Data center camouflage
- C. Bollards
- D. Reflective glass
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reflective glass is an architectural reinforcement that attempts to conceal the interior of an organization by reflecting light and preventing outsiders from seeing inside. Reflective glass can also reduce heat and glare, and enhance the aesthetic appearance of a building. Reflective glass is often used in high-security facilities, such as data centers, government buildings, or corporate headquarters12
1: Server Architecture for CompTIA Server+ (SK0-004) | Pluralsight 2: Introducing the CompTIA Infrastructure Career Pathway
NEW QUESTION # 196
A server administrator needs to deploy five VMs, all of which must have the same type of configuration.
Which of the following would be the MOST efficient way to perform this task?
- A. Use a physical host.
- B. Perform a P2V conversion.
- C. Use a VM template.
- D. Snapshot a VM.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Deploying a virtual machine from a template creates a virtual machine that is a copy of the template. The new virtual machine has the virtual hardware, installed software, and other properties that are configured for the template.
NEW QUESTION # 197
An administrator is configuring a host-based firewall tor a server. The server needs to allow SSH, FTP, and LDAP traffic. Which of the following ports must be configured so this traffic will be allowed? (Select THREE).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
- G. 6
- H. 7
Answer: D,F,G
NEW QUESTION # 198
A technician is checking a server rack. Upon entering the room, the technician notices the tans on a particular server in the rack are running at high speeds. This is the only server in the rack that is experiencing this behavior. The ambient temperature in the room appears to be normal. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the fans in that server are operating at full speed?
- A. A fan failure has occurred, and the other fans have increased speed to compensate.
- B. The server is In the process of shutting down, so fan speed operations have been defaulted to high.
- C. An incorrect fan size was inserted into the server, and the server has had to Increase the fan speed to compensate.
- D. The server is utilizing more memory than the other servers, so it has increased the fans to compensate.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 199
A technician has received multiple reports of issues with a server. The server occasionally has a BSOD, powers off unexpectedly, and has fans that run continuously. Which of the following BEST represents what the technician should investigate during troubleshooting?
- A. ESD issues
- B. Firmware incompatibility
- C. LED indicators
- D. CPU overheating
Answer: D
Explanation:
Unexpected shutdowns. If the system is randomly shutting down or rebooting, the most likely cause is a heat problem.
Reference:https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2224043&seqNum=3
NEW QUESTION # 200
A technician runs top on a dual-core server and notes the following conditions:
top -- 14:32:27, 364 days, 14 usersload average 60.5 12.4 13.6
Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
- A. Wait for the load average to come back down on its own
- B. Schedule a mandatory reboot of the server
- C. Identify the runaway process or processes
- D. Request that users log off the server
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should identify the runaway process or processes that are causing high load average on the server. Load average is a metric that indicates how many processes are either running on or waiting for the CPU at any given time. A high load average means that there are more processes than available CPU cores, resulting in poor performance and slow response time. A runaway process is a process that consumes excessive CPU resources without terminating or releasing them. A runaway process can be caused by various factors, such as programming errors, infinite loops, memory leaks, etc. To identify a runaway process, the administrator can use tools such as top, ps, or htop to monitor CPU usage and process status. To stop a runaway process, the administrator can use commands such as kill, pkill, or killall to send signals to terminate it.
NEW QUESTION # 201
A technician is unable to access a server's package repository internally or externally.
Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons? (Choose two.)
- A. The server has an architecture mismatch
- B. The system time is not synchronized
- C. The technician does not have sufficient privileges
- D. The default gateway is incorrect
- E. The local system log file is full
- F. The external firewall is blocking access
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 202
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a datacenter is concerned that transmissions from the building can be detected from the outside. Which of the following would resolve this concern? (Choose two.)
- A. RFID
- B. Camouflage
- C. Signal blocking
- D. Proximity readers
- E. Bollards
- F. Reflective glass
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Explanation
The best solutions to resolve the concern of transmissions from the building being detected from outside are signal blocking and reflective glass. Signal blocking is a method of preventing or interfering with electromagnetic signals from escaping or entering a certain area. Signal blocking can be achieved by using various materials or devices that create physical barriers or generate noise or jamming signals. Signal blocking can protect data transmissions from being intercepted or eavesdropped by unauthorized parties. Reflective glass is a type of glass that has a coating or film that reflects light and heat. Reflective glass can reduce glare and solar radiation, as well as prevent visual observation from outside. Reflective glass can enhance privacy and security for datacenter operations.
NEW QUESTION # 203
A company uses a hot-site, disaster-recovery model. Which of the following types of data replication is required?
- A. Asynchronous
- B. Incremental
- C. Application consistent
- D. Constant
Answer: D
Explanation:
The type of data replication that is required for a hot-site disaster recovery model is constant. A hot site is a type of disaster recovery site that has fully operational IT infrastructure and equipment that can take over the primary site's functions immediately in case of a disaster or disruption. A hot site requires constant data replication between the primary site and the hot site to ensure that the data is up-to-date and consistent. Constant data replication means that any changes made to the data at the primary site are immediately copied to the hot site without any delay or lag.
NEW QUESTION # 204
The accounting department needs more storage and wants to retain the current data for quick read-write access. The accounting server does not have any internet drive bays available to keep both disks however the server does have USB 3 0 and eSATA ports available. Which of the following is the BEST way to accomplish the department's goals?
- A. Place the existing data on a DVD and use the internal DVD-ROM drive.
- B. Move the existing data to a new. larger internal hard drive.
- C. Copy the existing data to an external USB 3 0 enclosure.
- D. Transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best way to accomplish the department's goals is to transfer the existing data to an external eSATA enclosure, which is a device that connects an external hard drive to a computer using an eSATA port. This will allow the accounting department to retain the current data for quick read-write access, as eSATA provides high-speed data transfer rates and supports hot-plugging. Unlike USB 3.0, eSATA does not share bandwidth with other devices, which can improve performance and reliability. Verified Reference: [eSATA vs USB 3.0]
NEW QUESTION # 205
An administrator is alerted to a hardware failure in a mission-critical server. The alert states that two drives have failed. The administrator notes the drives are in different RAID 1 arrays, and both are hot-swappable.
Which of the following steps will be the MOST efficient?
- A. Shut down the server and replace the drives.
- B. Replace both failed drives at the same time.
- C. Replace all the drives in both degraded arrays.
- D. Replace one drive, wait for a rebuild, and replace the next drive.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Since both drives are in different RAID 1 arrays and both are hot-swappable, the most efficient step is to replace both failed drives at the same time. This can minimize the downtime and avoid unnecessary reboots.
RAID 1 provides mirroring, which means that data is duplicated on both drives in the array. Therefore, replacing one drive will not affect the data on the other drive or the functionality of the array. References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_1
NEW QUESTION # 206
A server technician installs a new NIC on a server and configures the NIC for IP connectivity. The technician then tests the connection using the ping command. Given the following partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands:
Which of the following caused the issue?
- A. Incorrect default gateway
- B. Duplicate IP address
- C. DHCP misconfiguration
- D. Incorrect routing table
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ping command output shows that the NIC has an IP address of 192.168.1.100 and a default gateway of 192.168.1.1. However, when the technician tries to ping the default gateway, the reply comes from another IP address: 192.168.1.101. This means that there is another device on the network that has the same IP address as the default gateway, and it is responding to the ping request instead of the intended destination.
A duplicate IP address can cause network connectivity problems, such as packet loss, routing errors, or unreachable hosts. To resolve this issue, the technician should either change the IP address of the default gateway or the device that is conflicting with it, or use DHCP to assign IP addresses automatically and avoid conflicts.
The other options are not correct because they do not explain the ping output. An incorrect default gateway would cause no reply or a destination unreachable message, not a reply from a different IP address. A DHCP misconfiguration would cause an invalid or no IP address on the NIC, not a duplicate IP address on the network. An incorrect routing table would cause routing errors or unreachable destinations, not a reply from a different IP address.
Reference:
https://askleo.com/what_is_ping_and_what_does_its_output_tell_me/
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/ping
NEW QUESTION # 207
A technician needs maximum power redundancy while configuring a new server rack. Which of the following should be specified? (Select two).
- A. High-voltage PDUs
- B. Blanking panels
- C. Multiple UPSs
- D. Separate circuits
- E. Rack balancing
- F. KVM placement
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Explanation
Separate circuits and multiple UPSs can provide fail-safe power redundancy for a server rack. Separate circuits mean that the server rack is connected to two or more independent power sources, such as different utility lines or generators. This can prevent a single point of failure in the power supply, as if one circuit goes down, the other circuit can still provide power to the server rack1. Multiple UPSs mean that the server rack has two or more uninterruptible power supplies, which are devices that provide backup power and surge protection in case of a power outage or fluctuation. Multiple UPSs can be connected to separate circuits, or to different outlets on the same circuit, to increase the reliability and availability of power for the server rack23.
NEW QUESTION # 208
Users have noticed a server is performing below Baseline expectations. While diagnosing me server, an administrator discovers disk drive performance has degraded. The administrator checks the diagnostics on the RAID controller and sees the battery on me controller has gone bad. Which of the following is causing the poor performance on the RAID array?
- A. The drive array is corrupt.
- B. The controller has disabled the write cache.
- C. The controller cannot use all the available channels.
- D. The controller has lost its configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The write cache is a feature of some RAID controllers that allows them to temporarily store data in a fast memory buffer before writing it to the disk drives. This improves the performance and efficiency of write operations, especially for random and small writes. However, if the battery on the controller goes bad, the controller may disable the write cache to prevent data loss in case of a power failure. This can degrade the disk drive performance significantly, as every write operation will have to wait for the disk drives to complete.
References:
https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-raid-controller-battery-learn-cycle
https://www.techrepublic.com/article/understanding-raid-controller-write-cache/
NEW QUESTION # 209
An administrator is configuring the storage for a new database server, which will host databases that are mainly used for archival lookups. Which of the following storage types will yield the fastest database read performance?
- A. 10K rpm SATA
- B. SSD
- C. NAS
- D. 15K rpm SCSI
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The storage type that will yield the fastest database read performance is SSD. SSD (Solid State Drive) is a type of storage device that uses flash memory to store data. SSDs have no moving parts and can access data faster than traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning platters and magnetic heads. SSDs are especially suitable for databases that are mainly used for archival lookups, as they can provide faster response times and lower latency for read operations.
References: CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 1, Lesson 1.2, Objective 1.2
NEW QUESTION # 210
Which of me following BEST describes a disaster recovery site with a target storage array that receives replication traffic and servers that are only powered on In the event of a disaster?
- A. Hot
- B. Cold
- C. Cloud
- D. Warm
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 211
A technician is attempting to reboot a remote physical Linux server. However, attempts to command a shutdown -----now result in the loss of the SSH connection. The server still responds to pings. Which of the following should the technician use to command a remote shutdown?
- A. An IDRAC
- B. A virtual serial console
- C. A KVM
- D. A crash cart
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following if properly configured would prevent a user from installing an OS on a server? (Select TWO).
- A. SELInux
- B. Root password
- C. Group Policy Object
- D. BIOS/UEFI password
- E. Bootloader password
- F. Administrator password
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Requiring a boot password upon execution of the boot loader will prevent an unauthorized user from entering boot parameters or changing the boot partition. This prevents users from weakening security (e.g. turning off SELinux at boot time).
What is a UEFI password?
A UEFI, or BIOS, password is a password that must be entered when the machine is powered on or rebooted in order to continue. Without the password the machine cannot be booted at all - even from external media - and no configuration changes to the UEFI or BIOS settings can be made.
https://www.tenable.com/audits/items/CIS_Red_Hat_EL7_STIG_v2.0.0_STIG.audit:1ee8630516d a75be0fabf64c11ab70c6
https://askleo.com/how_do_i_remove_a_bios_password/#
NEW QUESTION # 213
An administrator has been asked to increase the storage capacity of a stand-alone file server but no further expansion slots are available. Which of the following would be the FASTEST solution to implement with no downtime?
- A. Replace the current drives with higher-capacity disks.
- B. Connect the server to a SAN
- C. Implement FCoE for more storage capacity.
- D. Configure a RAID array.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A SAN (Storage Area Network) is a network of storage devices that can provide shared storage capacity to multiple servers. By connecting the server to a SAN, the administrator can increase the storage capacity of the server without adding any internal disks or expansion cards. This solution can be implemented quickly and without any downtime. Verified References: [What is a SAN and how does it differ from NAS?]
NEW QUESTION # 214
A security analyst completed a port scan of the corporate production-server network. Results of the scan were then provided to a systems administrator for immediate action. The following table represents the requested changes:
The systems administrator created local firewall rules to block the ports indicated above. Immediately, the service desk began receiving calls about the internet being down. The systems administrator then reversed the changes, and the internet became available again. Which of the following ports on DNSSrv must remain open when the firewall rules are reapplied?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
Answer: E
Explanation:
Port 53 is the standard port for DNS (Domain Name System) queries and responses. DNS is a service that translates domain names (such as www.example.com) into IP addresses (such as 192.0.2.1) and vice versa. DNS is essential for internet connectivity, as it allows users and applications to access websites and other online resources by using human-readable names instead of numerical addresses1.
The DNSSrv server is a DNS server that provides name resolution for the corporate network. If port 53 is blocked on this server, it will not be able to communicate with other DNS servers or clients, and the name resolution will fail. This will prevent users from accessing any websites or online services that rely on domain names, such as web browsers, email clients, or cloud applications. Therefore, port 53 must remain open on DNSSrv to allow DNS traffic to flow.
NEW QUESTION # 215
A technician needs to install a Type 1 hypervisor on a server. The server has SD card slots, a SAS controller, and a SATA controller, and it is attached to a NAS. On which of the following drive types should the technician install the hypervisor?
- A. NAS drive
- B. SD card
- C. SAS drive
- D. SATA drive
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
The technician should install the Type 1 hypervisor on a SAS drive. A Type 1 hypervisor is a layer of software that runs directly on top of the physical hardware and creates virtual machines that share the hardware resources. A Type 1 hypervisor requires fast and reliable storage for optimal performance and stability. A SAS drive is a type of hard disk drive that uses Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) as its interface protocol. SAS drives offer high speed, low latency, and high reliability compared to other types of drives, such as SD cards, NAS drives, or SATA drives. SD cards are flash memory cards that offer low cost and portability but have low speed, low capacity, and low durability. NAS drives are network-attached storage devices that offer high capacity and easy access but have high latency and low reliability due to network dependency. SATA drives are hard disk drives that use Serial ATA (SATA) as their interface protocol. SATA drives offer moderate speed, moderate cost, and moderate reliability but have lower performance and durability than SAS drives.
NEW QUESTION # 216
The network's IDS is giving multiple alerts that unauthorized traffic from a critical application server is being sent to a known-bad public IP address.
One of the alerts contains the following information:
A) Exploit Alert
B) Attempted User Privilege Gain
C) 2/2/07-3: 09:09 10.1.200.32
D) --> 208.206.12.9:80
This server application is part of a cluster in which two other servers are also servicing clients. The server administrator has verified the other servers are not sending out traffic to that public IP address. The IP address subnet of the application servers is 10.1.200.0/26. Which of the following should the administrator perform to ensure only authorized traffic is being sent from the application server and downtime is minimized? (Select two).
- A. Disable all services on the affected application server.
- B. Perform a vulnerability scan on all the servers within the cluster and patch accordingly.
- C. Change the IP address of all the servers in the cluster to the 208.206.12.0/26 subnet.
- D. Block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network.
- E. Perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server.
- F. Enable GPO to install an antivirus on all the servers and perform a weekly reboot.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
The administrator should perform an antivirus scan on all servers within the cluster and reboot each server, and block access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network. These actions will help to remove any malware that may have infected the application server and prevent any further unauthorized traffic to the known-bad public IP address. An antivirus scan can detect and remove malicious software that may be sending data to an external source, and a reboot can clear any temporary files or processes that may be related to the malware. Blocking access to 208.206.12.9 from all servers on the network can prevent any future attempts to communicate with the malicious IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 217
Which of me following is the BEST action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster?
- A. Failover all VMs.
- B. Set the cluster to active-active.
- C. Fallback cluster services.
- D. Disable the heartbeat network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This is the best action to perform before applying patches to one of the hosts in a high availability cluster. A high availability cluster is a group of hosts that act like a single system and provide continuous uptime. A high availability cluster is often used for load balancing, backup, and failover purposes. Failover is a process of transferring workloads from one host to another in case of a failure or maintenance. By failing over all VMs (Virtual Machines) from the host that needs to be patched to another host in the cluster, the technician can ensure that there is no downtime or data loss during the patching process. Disabling the heartbeat network is not a good action to perform, as this would disrupt the communication and synchronization between the hosts in the cluster. Fallback cluster services is not a valid term, but it may refer to restoring cluster services after a failover, which is not relevant before applying patches. Setting the cluster to active-active is not a good action to perform, as this would increase the load on both hosts and reduce redundancy. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why-does-it-matter/
NEW QUESTION # 218
Users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address.
All the user workstations receive their IP information from a DHCP server. Which of the following would be the best step to perform NEXT?
- A. Correct the missing DHCP scope.
- B. Examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists.
- C. Run the tracert command from a workstation.
- D. Update the workstation hosts file.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
If users cannot access a new server by name, but the server does respond to a ping request using its IP address, it means that there is a problem with name resolution. The DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that maps hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. Therefore, the best step to perform next is to examine the DNS to see if the new server record exists and matches its IP address. If not, the DNS record needs to be added or updated accordingly. Running the tracert command from a workstation would not help with name resolution, as it only shows the route taken by packets to reach a destination by IP address. Correcting the missing DHCP scope would not help either, as DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) only assigns IP addresses and other network settings to clients, but does not resolve names. Updating the workstation hosts file would be a temporary workaround, but not a permanent solution, as it would require manually editing every workstation's hosts file with the new server's name and IP address. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/164981/how-to-use-nslookup-to-check-domain-name-information-in-microsoft-win
https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/27350/beginner-geek-how-to-edit-your-hosts-file/
NEW QUESTION # 219
A server administrator has configured a web server. Which of the following does the administrator need to install to make the website trusted?
- A. DNS
- B. PKI
- C. LDAP
- D. SSL
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is the security protocol used on the web when you fetch a page whose address begins with https:. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a newer version of the protocol.
NEW QUESTION # 220
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CompTIA Server+ certification is a valuable credential for IT professionals who want to demonstrate their expertise in server administration. CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam certification provides a solid foundation in server technologies and helps IT professionals to advance their careers in this field. Whether you are just starting out in server administration or you are looking to take your skills to the next level, the CompTIA Server+ certification is a great way to enhance your knowledge and expertise in this critical area of IT.
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